SIM/FLX Transition Check GK Prep Source 1 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What altitude is controlled ejection decision recommended at?
• What is advised if the seat survival kit has not deployed after ejection?
• What is the primary responsibility of the pilot conducting the exterior inspection?
• What is the maximum torque limit during takeoff?
• What should not be done if the power control lever is moved to cutoff during ground operations?
• Which system failure could be indicated by shortness of breath or confusion during flight?
• At what speed will full rudder deflection exceed the limits of the rudder control system, in KIAS?
• What is the maximum fuel limit below which a straight-through initial is expected in single runway operations?
• What does the probes anti-ice switch control?
• What is indicated by T-6 Flying status being classified as "unrestricted"?
• What should a crewmember do if they become spatially disoriented during IMC procedures?
• The scavenged oil in the oil cooling system is routed through which part of the aircraft?
• How much time after the scheduled takeoff time is the chock time unless previously coordinated with maintenance?
• In the event of an inadvertent departure from controlled flight, what should be the initial PCL setting?
• With the PMU off, what is the maximum Np allowed?
• When performing an emergency landing gear extension, who takes the primary action if the RCP is the aircraft commander?
• At what voltage will the EADI and EHSI go offline when the bus tie is closed?
• What should a pilot do if no assistance is available for hot brakes?
• What is the maximum altitude for unusual attitude training according to the Instrument/Navigation Training Rules?
• What is the maximum speed at which the ejection seat can provide safe escape?
• When does the oil need to be serviced for best results?
• What pressure reading triggers the OIL PX (red) light at idle?
• What is the required altitude to complete all spins in the training environment?
• What is the risk associated with unintentional movement after engine start?
• When ejecting over terrain exceeding what altitude should the manual override handle be used to deploy the parachute?
• What does the "E" in the FEVER memory jogger stand for?
• What assumption is made about maximum abort speed?
• What is the lowest pattern altitude listed for KCBM?
• In a forced landing scenario, what should be done if required after pulling the EMER LDG GR handle?
• In the air, a steady green light signal means what?
• What adjustment is provided in the front cockpit related to the power control levers?
• What characterizes a hot start during engine ignition?
• Which behavior is considered detrimental to flight discipline and CRM during flight?
• What is the minimum amount of recovery fuel a pilot is required to have?
• How does a higher temperature affect aircraft performance?
• What are the spin training rules regarding altitude for starting spins?
• If you experience an electrical fire, what should be checked first?
• What approach is described for IFR RECOVERY?
• What altitude should a pilot climb to during a Pattern Breakout towards the VFR entry point?
• How many fuel probes does the fuel quantity indicating system utilize?
• Does Columbus AFB RAPCON provide monitoring service for surveillance or precision approaches?
• In the event of a generator failure, which system is automatically shed?
• How should aircraft land during night pattern procedures?
• What is the maximum period for Phase 1 of the Bird Aircraft Strike Hazard Plan?
• What is the oil pressure range for aerobatics/spins?
• Which altitude was specified for safe escape using the ejection seat?
• Over sparsely populated or water areas, the minimum altitude to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure is?
• What should you do if only the main gears are down and locked during landing?
• Upon OBOGS failure, what is the recommended action regarding the OBOGS supply lever?
• What indicates that a condition on an AFTO Form 781 requires further attention but is not immediately dangerous?
• In cases of high fuel flow, which action should be taken first?
• When a taxi route requires crossing any runway, pilots must do what?
• What is the minimum altitude for a controllability check if practical?
• What is the purpose of monitoring CBM App (Ch4) during the Racetrack Recovery?
• A torque reading above what percentage indicates a system malfunction?
• What altitude range defines High Key in an Emergency Landing Pattern (ELP)?
• What activates the landing gear system aural tone?
• If there is a traffic conflict on inside/high downwind, can a pilot request a closed pattern?
• What action should be taken if fire is confirmed during flight?
• During engine run-up, the control stick must be in which position?
• What is the maximum altitude at which non-essential cockpit conversations should be minimized?
• If Low Key is at 1500 feet AGL, what is the minimum airspeed to maintain?
• Which characteristic pertains to Post Stall Gyrations?
• The amber OIL PX annunciator illuminates when sensed oil pressure is between which two psi values at idle?
• If the break point is straight through, when should you turn crosswind?
• In the case of a precautionary emergency landing (PEL), what is the applicable minimum ceiling?
• What should be done when experiencing physiological symptoms at altitude?
• With what output shaft speed does the reduction gearbox operate?
• What is the minimum oil pressure during aerobatics/spins?
• What could lead to improper procedures according to the critical items hooks?
• What condition denotes a "hung start" in an engine?
• In the context of aircraft weight, what is the empty weight noted?
• What is the minimum fuel requirement for solo operations?
• Which configurations of the aircraft are prohibited during spins?
• What should you do if a controlled ejection is required without intercom communication?
• What is the acceptable taxi speed in congested areas?
• At what percentage do the igniters and starter de-energize if fuel pressure is above 10 PSI?
• Under what condition is an erect spin permitted with landing gear and flaps retracted?
• What mechanical malfunction occurs when the propeller shaft meets the surrounding sleeve?
• What must a pilot call if required to carry straight through for a conflict?
• During a controlled ejection, how should the oxygen mask and helmet be positioned?
• What are the three pitch settings for the propeller?
• What must occur for the PMU to go offline?
• When should aircrew file DD Form 1801 flight plans?
• What squawk code should be used during the KGTR racetrack recovery?
• Which of the following is classified as a Danger Zone in the Index of Thermal Stress?
• What is the maximum oil pressure indicator reading displayed with the engine shut down?
• How many quarts of oil are in the plane?
• How much oxygen is available if the emergency oxygen is pulled?
• What is the output voltage and current of the generator?
• Spins below which altitude are prohibited?
• What is the length of the aircraft?
• What action should be taken after the last flight of the day concerning inspections?
• In non-congested areas, the minimum altitude AGL is?
• Where is the primary static system located?
• What is the recommended action when told to "MAINTAIN RUNWAY HEADING"?
• What is the correct action if the canopy cannot be opened during an emergency?
• How is stick shaker activation related to stall warnings?
• What is a CI Hook when stating "Gear, flaps up, lights out (airspeed)" with either gear still down or flaps in the TO or LDG position?
• At what Np percentage does takeoff/max operations occur?
• What should be the heading during takeoff from runway 31L under VFR conditions?
• What is the first response in the event of OBOGS failure?
• What does an FDR MAINT indication signify?
• What should pilots ensure they have received before taxiing?
• How should the aircraft be handled during the controllability check regarding airspeed?
• When does the stick shaker activate as a stall warning?
• What is the recommended action if a pilot is told to "STANDBY" by the RSU?
• What is the maximum airspeed with gear and/or flaps extended, in KIAS?
• Which type of maneuver is classified as abrupt and prohibited?
• What type of propeller is driven by the power turbine?
• What step should be taken after confirming engine shutdown procedures are necessary?
• At what speed does the benefit of a zoom climb become negligible?
• What factors does the TAD use to make adjustments?
• What is the maximum speed allowed on a Slow Route?
• What should you do if uncertain about your clearance in the RSU pattern?
• Where should you plan to land when operating on alternate sides of the runway?
• Which point must be avoided during the VFR departure from RWY 18/36?
• What happens if an Over-G is suspected during after-landing checks?
• What must crews be prepared to do before the planned briefing time?
• If oil pressure remains between which values at idle power for more than 5 seconds, both amber and red OIL PX annunciators will illuminate?
• Which of the following is NOT a component to check with the FEVER memory jogger?
• How many pounds of fuel are obtained with over the wing/gravity refueling?
• Where should a pilot switch to Sunfish frequency during the KGTR recovery process?
• What is the idle N1 percentage range for ground operations?
• What must be ensured along with having a clear visor during night flights?
• What does FDR FAIL mean?
• During an RSU pattern, what is a critical consideration when executing flight procedures?
• What call is made to discontinue maneuvering when safety of flight is not a factor?
• How long is a tire pressure check considered valid?
• What is the guideline for aircrews filing at night?
• What altitude is maintained during the Racetrack Recovery on runway 36 at KGTR?
• Is emergency flap operation available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power?
• How many hours are required for bottle to throttle after consuming alcohol?
• At which altitude may there be a transient OBOGS FAIL indication due to rapid decompression?
• What is the minimum cloud clearance in feet above clouds?
• Cycling control positions can aggravate aircraft motion and significantly what?
• What is the correct action to take after engine start when using external power?
• What is the required additional feet of landing ground roll for heavy weight flaps?
• What action is recommended to manage the parachute when preparing for landing?
• For which type of maneuvers is a G-awareness exercise required?
• What is included in the T6 Standard for the Instrument Cockpit Check?
• What is assigned to NAV channel preset for KCBM ILS 13C?
• During a Straight-in Breakout, at what point should the pilot turn toward the VFR entry point?
• How many pounds of usable fuel does the single point refueling system provide?
• What is the width of the inside runway at Columbus AFB?
• What is the recommended action if the red oil pressure warning light illuminates?
• What must pilots ensure regarding their flight suit while around aircraft?
• During VFR takeoff from runway 13R, what is the initial heading after becoming airborne?
• What is the capacity of the oil system in U.S. quarts?
• What is the trim tab travel restriction for the ailerons during trailing edge up?
• What are the crosswind limits for a dry runway?
• What is the height of the T-6A?
• What is the required climb speed during local sorties?
• At which location are overhead patterns including closed patterns permitted to be flown?
• What must pilots check regarding AFTO Form 781 before conducting any aircraft inspection?
• What is indicated by the FENCE-In procedure concerning emergency airfield options?
• What is the purpose of a thumbs up signal prior to engine shutdown?
• What should a pilot look for to confirm a landing clearance from the RSU during the electrical failure pattern?
• What G pull up is recommended when initiating a zoom climb above 150 KIAS?
• What must Columbus-based aircraft monitor before, during, and immediately following engine start?
• If a DD Form 1801 is sent to AMOPS, when should aircrew call to ensure the flight plan was received?
• How many feet of altitude can be gained during a zoom to eject maneuver?
• How much additional fuel is available if manually filled to the base of the filler neck?
• What is the recommended interval for performing ops checks?
• Which instrument receives static pressures from the secondary pitot system?
• When the HYDR FL LO annunciator is illuminated, below what pressure should normal operation of landing gear and other controls be considered unavailable?
• What is the minimum battery voltage required to attempt a battery powered ground start?
• What is the minimum voltage required for the generator to charge the battery?
• What should be consulted when making takeoff emergency decisions?
• What is the minimum voltage to avoid attempting a battery powered start?
• What needs to be turned off prior to takeoff?
• What component does NOT need to be individually disconnected during an emergency ground egress?
• Which taxiway at Columbus AFB is narrower than the others, measuring 50 feet wide?
• Which area on the airfield is mentioned as permanently closed and unusable?
• How much altitude is lost during a 6-turn steady state spin?
• How many degrees of castor does the nose wheel have?
• What would you do if given a standby instruction in an RSU pattern?
• How much altitude is typically lost during a 6-turn steady-state spin?
• What is the minimum fuel requirement for single runway operations?
• What must be ensured before takeoff in regards to the aircraft?
• At what altitude does the seat auto-separate during ejection?
• What actions are taken when applying OCF boldface while in a steady-state spin?
• What is the maximum distance from the VFR entry point that must be maintained during descending turns?
• To initiate ejection, which handle should be pulled?
• What is the delay in seconds for front seat ejection when the ISS mode selector is set to BOTH?
• How long does the emergency oxygen supply last for the pilot?
• What fuel flow in pounds per hour indicates a potential fuel system malfunction?
• How many UHF frequencies can the RMU store?
• Opening the bus tie switch will allow battery operation for how long?
• How many seconds of fuel are available in any orientation?
• What does ITT stand for in the context of engine performance?
• What is the maximum distance for all pattern breakouts in RSU?
• Which of the following is NOT a restriction for uncontrolled airfields with LOAs?
• What percentage of flight time is reserve fuel according to regulations, up to 45 minutes?
• Which aircraft has the right-of-way in distress or emergency?
• When are Basic Postflight Inspection (BPO) inspections conducted?
• What is the first instruction if tire failure occurs during takeoff?
• What is the T6 Standard for handling a physiological incident?
• What action should be taken after takeoff on dark nights with poor horizon visibility?
• What is the maximum takeoff gross weight of the T-6A?
• What is the minimum visibility requirement for VFR to exit GTR?
• What is the second step in the emergency engine shutdown on the ground?
• What must be operated to enable emergency flap extension?
• In recovery operations, what is a common practice for approaches?
• What is the primary purpose of pulling the firewall shutoff handle?
• What is the width of the T-6A?
• What does 'SLUF' refer to in the context of standby gear?
• What does the illumination of both PMU FAIL and PMU STATUS annunciators indicate?
• What is the transient oil temperature range?
• What is powered by the hydraulic system concerning landing gear?
• Which type of icing is the maximum permissible according to the operational limits?
• Which of the following has the highest priority according to right of way rules?
• What is the primary refueling method for the aircraft's fuel system?
• When does the yellow OBOGS TEMP warning appear?
• Prior to engine shutdown, both pilots must ensure seats are in what position?
• How many pumps are in the hydraulic system?
• What is the minimum recovery time after SCUBA diving before a flight?
• What is the general procedure during Sunfish Emergency Procedures in terms of fuel management?
• When conducting a VFR Entry Breakout, what altitude should the aircraft initially climb to?
• What needs to be done following a configured maneuver before transitioning to a clean maneuver?
• What does an FDR "fail" light indicate?
• What action should aircrews take immediately after identifying ice formation on the aircraft?
• When should the configuration of the aircraft not be changed after a controllability check?
• If two aircrews do not complete the required checklist entries, what action should they take?
• What does a steady green light gun signal indicate for an aircraft on the ground?
• Which UHF channel is used for KCBM App/Dep?
• What type of takeoffs are standard at KCBM?
• For a successful landing during a PEL, which configuration should be set for gear and flaps?
• What is the normal recovery airspeed during Ops/WX recall procedures?
• When T-6 Flying status is "restricted with remarks," what does this imply?
• The SCU will illuminate the amber OIL PX annunciator for a minimum of how many seconds if pressure is sufficient above idle?
• What is the exit heading after turning away from the runway during a breakout?
• After taxiing past which line are aircrews considered clear of the runway on runway 13R?
• What type of stalls are prohibited according to T6 operations limits?
• What is the required taxi interval when operating in a staggered formation?
• What is the maximum ITT at idle?
• What is the danger of a situation when the aircraft experiences a significant uncommanded motion?
• What is the minimum required taxi interval between aircraft during night taxiing?
• Under what conditions may a pilot deviate from any flight rule?
• What is the minimum distance an aircraft should maintain from obstructions without wing walkers present?
• If fire is not confirmed during flight, what should be done next?
• What is the minimum altitude recommended for ejection in an inadvertent spin?
• What should be avoided until ice accumulations on the aircraft are removed?
• What does the auto fuel balance system correct for?
• The standard T-6 cruise and descent speed is:
• What data is presented in the alternate engine data display?
• What is the responsibility of each crewmember with regard to collision avoidance?
• The secondary pitot probe is positioned near which wing tip?
• What is the diameter of the propeller?
• According to the guidance, what is the protocol for solo students regarding engine failure?
• When executing a breakout, which precaution must pilots take regarding other aircraft?
• When does the FUEL PX (red) light illuminate?
• Which device is mentioned to be installed on both seats during an emergency ground egress?
• What does the acronym CLEF stand for in the context of in-flight checks?
• Which situation would warrant executing the Emergency Engine Shutdown On The Ground?
• What is the typical rate of increase for ITT that indicates a hot start?
• What is the maximum acceleration limit for asymmetric gear/flaps in Gs?
• What action is crucial to prevent accidents during aircraft movement?
• What is the pattern altitude for Sunfish airspace?
• If the standby attitude gyro off flag appears after the battery bus fails, how long will the indicator operate?
• What action applies to the nose wheel steering when the aircraft is airborne?
• What is required for the TAD to function effectively?
• What should the Pilot in Command do if a flight rule is deviated from during an emergency?
• What action is signified by a flashing red light signal when on the ground?
• What should be done after declaring an emergency in the context of "Land As Soon As Possible"?
• What condition requires notifying maintenance according to FDR lights?
• What is the purpose of ORM 321 in ELP ejection decision?
• What does an "/" on an AFTO Form 781 indicate?
• What does OBOGS stand for?
• When performing an ELP at a non-military airfield, how is it referred to?
• What should pilots do with loose items before performing spins or aerobatics?
• If the rate of descent exceeds 1500 ft/min during an uncommanded prop feather, to what level should torque be increased?
• What is the motion called that is often mistaken for a spin but is not steady-state?
• Do standby altimeter and airspeed indicators require electrical power?
• What is the requirement for speed at KGTR until on base?
• What is the reported minimum visibility for VFR straight-in recoveries?
• What is the maximum allowable airspeed for pilots below 10,000 feet MSL?
• What situation should be avoided when approaching the pattern?
• How many minutes of oxygen does the emergency oxygen bottle provide?
• In the Buzzsaw Departure (VFR), what is the required altitude to be at BUZER?
• What is the minimum distance to maintain from obstructions while taxiing with a wing walker?
• What must be the minimum landing distance for heavy weight flaps plus the additional required feet?
• What should you avoid during oil system malfunction if only the amber oil pressure warning is illuminated?
• Which display presents primary engine data such as torque and propeller RPM?
• What is the minimum voltage required to charge the battery?
• The validity of a pre-flight inspection lasts for how long?
• Aircraft should not squawk on the ground. What does "squawk" refer to in this context?
• Before taxiing, what must pilots do regarding the flight plan?
• What altitude should an aircraft NOT exceed during a go-around or low approach until cleared?
• In terms of aircraft communication, when should a pilot be cleared to break by RSU?
• An ER is valid for how long?
• What should a pilot do if they are unable to establish intercom communication during an emergency?
• What is the recommended action for a bird strike down the centerline of the aircraft?
• At what altitude does the seat auto separate during ejection?
• What should a pilot avoid doing to prevent inadvertent engine shutdown?
• What is the length of the inside runway at Columbus AFB?
• In the Bird Aircraft Strike Hazard (BASH) Plan, what is one of the levels of bird condition?
• What does a FENCE check ensure in terms of operational boundaries?
• If an aircraft has hot brakes, what is the first action a pilot should take?
• If ____ is visible on the nose gear tire, the aircraft should not be accepted.
• What command should the AC give during an emergency ground egress?
• What does "MAX" signify in the context of stall recovery?
• In a spin, how much altitude is generally lost per turn when erect?
• During night weeks, what is the flight duty period in hours?
• If the main oil filter becomes clogged, which valve allows unfiltered oil to lubricate the engine?
• On what condition must pilots not request closed patterns?
• Which system serves as the secondary pitot static systems?
• Under what condition does the PMU go offline?
• What is a crucial step during cockpit preparations regarding flight controls?
• What should be briefed at emergency divert airfields suitable for?
• What is the accuracy duration of the standby attitude indicator when all electrical power is off?
• At what fuel pressure level does the red FUEL PX annunciator activate?
• After how many seconds will the transfer valve close if a fuel imbalance of 20 pounds is detected?
• How long can the auxiliary battery power standby instruments in an emergency?
• During a cleared low approach, how low can aircrews descend?
• What is the minimum fuel requirement for aerobatics per side?
• Which type of pump is included as part of the fuel system?
• What is the indicated pressure that will cause the amber EHYD PX LO annunciator to illuminate?
• What are the symmetric clean acceleration limits in Gs?
• What is the correct procedure if fuel imbalance is detected before spins?
• What is the function of the reduction gearbox?
• What is the PF responsible for during inflight checks?
• What is inappropriate if attempting to push power up while in recovery?
• After how many seconds will the SCU trigger the OIL PX annunciators if oil pressure is insufficient?
• What is located near the right wing tip and provides pressure to the air data computer?
• What should the PNF do to assume control with comms method 1?
• What action should the PF refrain from doing before confirming with the other crewmember?
• Which type of pump is NOT included in the 8 pumps of the T-6A?
• Which systems are covered by the auxiliary battery?
• For takeoff and maximum Np, what is the upper limit?
• What is the recommended airspeed prior to extending landing gear during a forced landing?
• What is the width of the center runway at Columbus AFB?
• What is the primary purpose of a Low Approach in aviation?
• What conditions must be met for spin training?
• How does a pilot signal the desire to relinquish control when there is an intercom failure?
• What will happen if the threshold speed for full rudder deflection is exceeded, in KIAS?
• How long is a pre-flight (PR) inspection valid if the aircraft has not flown?
• Which items become inoperative with a GEN BUS failure?
• True or False: Ejection is recommended if a suitable landing area is not available when landing on an unprepared surface.
• What might be an exception to the 250 knots restriction below 10,000 feet?
• What does the amber L FUEL LO and R FUEL LO annunciators indicate?
• If a medical emergency arises due to GLOC, what should the pilot do with the mission?
• What is the control for opening the canopy during an emergency ground egress?
• What should solo students do if the fuel does not permit landing at CAFB?
• What is "bingo fuel" used to indicate?
• Which NAV channel preset corresponds to MEI?
• For IFR recoveries, what is meant by “published minimums”?
• What type of instruments does the auxiliary battery support?
• At what altitude do you require at least 135 KIAS for an airstart maneuver?
• What is the width of the aircraft?
• What is the minimum distance to keep from obstructions when taxiing without a wing walker?
• During the Racetrack Recovery for missed approaches on runway 18 (VFR), what is the squawk code to set?
• Under RESTRICTED OVERHEAD pattern status, what is the maximum number of aircraft allowed in the RSU pattern?
• How many turns into an erect spin does it take for the spin to enter a near steady-state condition?
• When should a pilot not fly through marginal weather when diverting?
• What are the three primary tools for clearing in the T-6?
• When conducting maneuvers at night, which of the following is strictly prohibited?
• What happens to an Exceptional Release once a new discrepancy is recorded?
• What is the recommended distance to turn crosswind in an RSU pattern?
• Which situation describes a "no start" during engine ignition?
• What action should be taken when experiencing an intercom failure and needing to communicate visually?
• What should be transmitted as part of the distress call during an ejection?
• If an FDR FAIL indication occurs, what is the recommended action?
• What is the VHF channel preset for KCBM Tower?
• What is the visible condition of the main gear tire that is unacceptable?
• What is the function of the propeller's feathered setting?
• What is the primary function of the reduction gearbox?
• If the BUS TIE annunciator is illuminated, what will occur if the battery bus fails?
• What type of parachute is utilized in this system?
• In what situation must aircraft approach speed be increased by 10 KIAS?
• Which display includes oil temperature and oil pressure readings?
• If power is insufficient to complete a PEL after an uncommanded power change, what is the last resort action?
• What does "joker fuel" refer to?
• What temperature condition requires the engine start to be aborted?
• In emergency declarations, what does declaring minimum fuel signify?
• What is the first step in the abort start procedure?
• What is the engine's torque measured in foot-pounds?
• What should be monitored during taxi to ensure safety?
• What should be done if experiencing uncommanded propeller feather?
• What is the height of the aircraft?
• What can instructors potentially CI-Hook a pilot for?
• Under what condition should the engine be shut down immediately during ground operations?
• What is the purpose of making a left or right turn towards the VFR entry point at the 4-way intersection?
• Who is responsible for starting the engine in normal circumstances?
• What transient torque percentage may occur, and for how long?
• What is the taxi speed discretion in uncongested areas determined by?
• What type of parachute is used in the aircraft?
• What characterizes the incipient spin phase?
• During an engine failure in flight, what is the minimum airspeed to maintain a zoom/glide?
• What defines the maximum abort speed of an aircraft?
• When the generator is not functioning, what type of battery provides power to the electrical system?
• Aircraft taxiing for departure have priority over which type of aircraft?
• What should a pilot do when they see a flashing white light signal while airborne?
• What is the standard procedure for pilots when they become lost in the local area?
• What is the minimum weather required for VR in the training rules?
• What N1 percent must be reached for aural tones to be audible during engine start?
• What should pilots do after landing before accomplishing checklist items?
• What component fails if the BAT BUS fails?
• Which type of light is activated just prior to engine start and during shutdown?
• What should be the initial action if still established in a steady-state spin after applying OCF boldface?
• At what altitude should T-6 aircrews not descend below during an engine malfunction requiring a forced landing?
• What is the required distance for cloud separation specified in the training rules?
• The minimum altitude a PIC will operate over national parks and monuments is?
• For a controlled ejection, what should the leg restraint garters be?
• Before initiating takeoff, what must be checked for safety?
• At what altitude can the ejection seat safely provide escape at speeds up to approximately 370 KIAS?
• What is the maximum ITT limit before a restart attempt, in degrees Celsius?
• What defines a suitable landing area for aircraft operations?
• Which step is NOT included in the POST EJECTION PROCEDURES checklist?
• What control system does the PMU use to switch between flight and ground modes?
• What is the T6 Standard regarding the clearing responsibility?
• What is a critical speed to avoid during landing after a controllability check?
• What is one of the prohibited maneuvers involving spins?
• What defines an aggravated spin according to T6 operations?
• In the event of an emergency engine shutdown on the ground, which action should be taken first?
• What is a potential danger of failing to signal correctly on the ground?
• What is the oil pressure range during aerobatics/spins at idle?
• What amount of usable fuel remains when the L or R FUEL LO annunciator is illuminated?
• What action can a pilot take if the generator malfunctions in flight?
• What should a pilot do when faced with a situation that allows no response to flight controls?
• All air from the bleed air ports is processed through which component?
• What is the function of the emergency flaps?
• In the definition of "Land As Soon As Practical," how urgent are the emergency conditions?
• What is the total fuel capacity of the left and right tanks combined, assuming the weight of JP-8?
• What is the first action a pilot must take after deviating from a flight rule?
• When handling hot brakes, which direction should the aircraft be parked?
• What should be done when fuel does not permit landing at the intended field during single runway operations?
• What is the required attire for students and non-rated individuals during T-6 sorties?
• Who is authorized to sign off an Exceptional Release?
• Who has the right of way when taxiing?
• What is the visibility requirement for ELPs (Tower or RSU)?
• What should a pilot do to transfer control of the aircraft between crewmembers?
• When should Thru-Flight (TH) inspections be performed?
• At what speed does buffet occur before the stall?
• What is the maximum rudder travel to the left?
• What is the wait time before the third start attempt after a failure?
• What is the maximum allowable inlet temperature (IOAT) at start?
• When should the PMU terminate the engine start sequence?
• When must a civil or military tower close a flight plan?
• Which of the following actions is prohibited with a fuel imbalance in aerobatic maneuvers?
• What is the maximum ITT range for 5 seconds, in degrees Celsius?
• Which NAV channel preset is designated for KGTR ILS 18?
• What does FDR MAINT indicate?
• How many fuel pumps are there in the fuel tank?
• What is the minimum in-flight visibility required for aerobatics to avoid clouds?
• How much tailwind is permissible during taxi operations?
• How far should the wingtip be from an obstruction during taxiing to estimate 25 feet clearance?
• What is considered a prohibited maneuver involving spins?
• What is the maximum oil pressure allowable, in PSI?
• After emergency flap extension, can the flaps be retracted until maintenance takes place?
• When experiencing both radio failure and electrical failure in the pattern, what altitude should be maintained?
• What is the length of the T-6A?
• What may be initially identified by abnormal engine noise and fluctuating torque?
• How early should crews plan to finish their formal brief before the first scheduled flying brief time?
• The duration that tire pressure is considered good is?
• Which of the following is a step to execute if takeoff is continued after a tire failure?
• A PIC cannot exceed how many knots in the airspace underlying class B or in a VFR corridor designated through class B airspace?
• When should you avoid requesting closed traffic?
• What type of landing gear is featured on the T-6A aircraft?
• What should be done if serious oxygen exposure is experienced during altitude training?
• How many minutes must you wait after the fourth start attempt according to the T6 operations limits?
• If the cold side is occupied and there is sufficient separation, is it permissible to land on the hot side?
• When checking altitude during an inadvertent departure from controlled flight, what action should be confirmed?
• In dual runway operations, what is the minimum amount of fuel required to land?
• What is the minimum altitude required for non-local VFR point-to-point navigation missions?
• What is the term "TOR" related to in aviation?
• What is the first step if experiencing uncommanded power changes or loss of power?
• During an inadvertent departure from controlled flight, what should be the first action?
• How far past the point should departure leg/takeoff ejections occur?
• Are emergency flaps available when the auxiliary battery is the only power source?
• What is the required minimum runway width in feet?
• How wide are the other taxiways at Columbus AFB?
• What causes the yellow DUCT TEMP warning?
• What indicates an unsatisfactory result after a solo flight?
• A detailed written record of a flight rule deviation must be kept for how long?
• What type of lights should be on when the engine is starting or running?
• Under what condition can you request closed traffic?
• What is necessary to do before engaging in emergency operations with engine malfunctions?
• What is the Np percentage range to avoid stabilized ground operations?
• When directed to hold, what is the approach for landing on a single runway during emergencies?
• What altitude should the aircraft maintain upon initial contact with Sunfish before executing a Center Runway Breakout?
• What is the minimum acceptable starting voltage below which external power should not be connected?
• What must be ensured regarding the backup UHF radio before engine start?
• What happens if the hydraulic pressure falls below the set level?
• When performing a low approach, what should you do with the aircraft?
• What is the maximum downward deflection for the elevator?
• What must be done to avoid damaging the transparencies?
• What is the minimum obstacle clearance required above the highest obstacle within 2 NM of the aircraft?
• What is defined as the maximum braking speed for an aircraft?
• When JMPS is unavailable, what should aircrews use instead?
• What is the maximum altitude below which all flight activities are regarded as critical?
• How is a controlled ejection signaled when using the intercom?
• What action should be avoided when the battery voltage is low?
• What is the maximum engine oil pressure that may display during engine shutdown?
• What is the T6 Standard for transferring control of the aircraft with comms method 1?
• Which of the following does the firewall shutoff handle cut off to the engine?
• What is the maximum permissible altitude for executing spins?
• What indication should a pilot look for that suggests a failure of the AHRS?
• What type of inspection is required prior to the first flight of the day?
• Which device senses engine torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate to compute a desired rudder trim tab position?
• At what altitude does Sunfish airspace extend to?
• What is the required minimum controllability check configuration during a landing attempt?
• What is the maximum altitude a Restricted Low Approach can descend to above ground level (AGL)?
• What is the voltage of the auxiliary battery located in the left avionics compartment?
• When should pilots verbalize a numerical fuel state?
• What is the maximum deflection for the ailerons trailing edge up?
• How close can an aircraft taxi to an obstruction without a marshaller present?
• What should not be stored in the cockpit overnight if extreme temperatures are expected?
• How many seconds of fuel does the inverted flight fuel pickup provide?
• What is the maximum fuel load difference that the automatic fuel balancing system maintains in each wing?
• How many minutes must the oil level be checked after engine shutdown for the most accurate results?
• What critical indicator is located within the reduction gearbox?
• How long is the cooling period after the first 20-second motor cycle of the starter?
• In a Perch/Low Key Breakout, what is the first altitude the pilot should reach before turning toward the VFR entry point?
• What is an assumption made regarding the time taken to abort a flight?
• In an RSU pattern, at what distance should you notify if you are going to breakout?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Fs used to determine if an airstart is warranted?
• In the event of an engine malfunction, what is the first action you should take according to the T6 Standard?
• After taking off, when should pilots switch to departure frequency?
• What is the oil pressure range during takeoff/max operations?
• What is the altitude at which spins should be completed above clouds?
• What is the required airspeed for an airstart if attempting at sea level to 15,000 feet MSL?
• What is the maximum allowable difference in fuel between left and right tanks that can trigger the FUEL BAL annunciator?
• What is the minimum fuel requirement in pounds?
• What glidepath guidance is required for night non-precision approaches at airfields other than home station?
• What conditions must solo students adhere to during sorties?
• What happens if no adequate measures are taken regarding a fire warning light?
• What should a pilot do in the event of a breakout while flying status is Restricted Overhead?
• In the standard for Spare Aircraft Procedures, what must the IP do when stepping to a spare?
• What is the expected procedure for takeoff times on Runway 31?
• The split flaps on the T-6A are controlled and operated in what manner?
• The SCU activates the red OIL PX annunciator if oil pressure drops to what level or below?
• What are the basic conditions defining propeller pitch?
• When should the helmet visor be down, according to the procedures?
• For CONTACT RECOVERIES, what is the maximum number of aircraft allowed in the pattern?
• Is it true that aircraft can be flown solo with some instrument or system malfunctions in the rear cockpit?
• What is the maximum braking speed defined as?
• When can items marked with an asterisk be briefed as "standard"?
• What is the minimum altitude for non-congested areas?
• What type of missions are permitted when T-6 Flying status is classified as "restricted with remarks"?
• What is the designated indicator for the standby airspeed indicators in each cockpit?
• In the event of receiving traffic priority from ATC, what should the PIC do?
• What oil pressure may cause both amber and red OIL PX annunciators to illuminate at idle power?
• What should be verbalized by both pilots after executing a G-awareness exercise?
• What altitude should be maintained above the highest obstacle in a congested area?
• In icy runway conditions, what is the maximum allowable wind during taxi?
• According to T6 Standards, what is required if icing is forecast for the planned route of flight?
• If a decision is made to continue takeoff after tire failure, what should be done with the gear and flaps?
• What is the first action in response to uncommanded power changes?
• When does the system close the motive flow line from the light tank?
• True or False: Fire indications on the ground should be confirmed using the FEVER memory jogger.
• What is the maximum allowable oil pressure during aerobatic operations at idle?
• Which phase of flight is considered critical and includes taxi, takeoff, and landing?
• What is the primary mission planning software for the T-6?
• When does the stick shaker activate in relation to a stall?
• What is the crosswind limit for operations in standing water?
• What is the altitude range for Base Key in an ELP?
• What are the voltage and amp hour specifications of the auxiliary battery?
• Aircrews will attempt to recover an aircraft after inadvertent entry onto unprepared surfaces?
• What is the recommended altitude for a controlled ejection?
• What is considered normal pressure above 18,069 feet altitude?
• What is the minimum speed in KIAS that must be reached before the trim system makes further inputs?
• When conducting ELPs (Tower or RSU), what is the minimum altitude below clouds that must be maintained?
• For an uncontrolled ejection below 6,000' AGL, what command should be given?
• What is the normal hydraulic pressure range?
• How many types of pumps are mentioned in the fuel system?
• During single runway operations, what should solo students be directed to do?
• What is one of the first actions performed during POST EJECTION procedures regarding the visor?
• What must aircrews do when executing visual circling maneuvers during night operations?
• What torque level simulates a power loss situation during emergency procedures?
• What altitude should a pilot descend below if practical during a physiological incident?
• What is the maximum fuel flow in PPH for all phases of flight?
• What is the maximum number of aircraft allowed in the pattern during tower-controlled operations?
• What should the taxiing plan include when approaching known conflict points?
• What power setting should be applied if engine power is insufficient to reduce descent below 1500 ft/min?
• What is the minimum altitude for intentional spin entry in feet MSL?
• What is the minimum altitude below which spins are prohibited?
• What UHF channel corresponds to KCBM Ground?
• What is the critical pressure threshold for a CKPT PX (red) light activation?
• What should pilots focus on before executing any flight maneuvers?
• What does a "-" on an AFTO Form 781 signify?
• What limits should not be exceeded during flight?
• Spins are prohibited when the PCL is set at what power level?
• What is the minimum clearance distance when taxiing with wing walkers?
• What should pilots do if encountering undue delay after being told to "MAINTAIN RUNWAY HEADING"?
• During an exterior inspection, where should the gear pins be stowed?
• Which symbol indicates that an aircraft is grounding or unsafe/unfit for flight?
• What happens if aircraft exceeds maneuvering limits that compromise flight safety?
• What altitude should be maintained during the KGTR racetrack recovery?
• What error does the critical items hook address concerning pilot preparation?
• Which procedure should be followed when entering the traffic pattern after an electrical failure?
• What is the flap deflection for takeoff position?
• What is the ambient temperature range for ground operation in degrees Celsius?
• What is the altitude of the high pattern at KCBM?
• What is the normal recovery fuel weight requirement?
• What is the NAV channel preset for KTUP ILS 36?
• What is the normal pressurization limit above 18,000 feet MSL?
• How do pilots identify incipient spins?
• How many pounds of fuel can you get with single-point refueling?
• What is the required altitude when reaching the Bengal Departure point BENRE?
• At what PSI does the overpressurization safety valve open?
• What is the maximum engine temperature allowed transiently?
• What is the maximum DME distance at which all pattern breakouts should remain?
• What should pilots do with life support equipment during a physiological incident?
• How does the RCP pilot signal the FCP pilot to actuate the Auxiliary Battery switch?
• When should landing distance be considered in relation to the use of LDG flaps?
• When planning for fuel during a mission, what fuels are identified?
• How fast should a pilot taxi in congested areas according to T6 standards?
• What is the maximum altitude for aerobatic maneuvers as per Contact Training Rules?
• What standard specifies the procedure for initiating a PEL after a bird strike?
• Which indication might accompany a compressor stall?
• What is the main action to take after reaching 15,000' MSL in the Buzzsaw Departure?
• What indication shows the hydraulic fluid needs servicing?
• What actions should be taken for an immediate airstart under PMU norm conditions?
• When does the boost pump deactivate if fuel pressure exceeds 10 PSI?
• What percentage is used as a minimum for N1 in flight?
• What altitude is associated with radar termination in a modified overhead entry?
• What is the first action taken in case of fire in flight if confirmed?
• When landing with unsafe gear, how should you touchdown if all gears are up?
• What is the standard cockpit altitude when below 18,069 feet?
• What is the aircraft's basic empty weight approximately in pounds?
• What is the minimum acceptable battery voltage to connect external power to avoid damage?
• What is the maximum transient torque reading allowed for a short duration?
• At what fuel pressure do the igniters and starter de-energize?
• What is the minimum speed to be maintained at KCBM until on final approach?
• How should pilots handle a situation where a successful recovery is deemed unlikely during an engine malfunction?
• What does the term "breakouts" refer to in pattern operations?
• What should be done if G-meters in both cockpits are not within 1 G?
• Which display may show dashes during an uncommanded propeller feather scenario?
• What should a pilot review in addition to regular checklist items before takeoff?
• What is the minimum fuel requirement for landing during dual runway operations?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the FEVER memory jogger?
• What is the maximum operating speed in KIAS?
• What is the initial maneuver for a High Key Breakout?
• Which maneuver is explicitly prohibited in T6 operations?
• What direction should pilots exit the aircraft during an emergency ground egress?
• In mountainous terrain, when should you pull the MOR handle?
• What should be monitored while squawking during the KGTR racetrack recovery?
• What does an FDR "maint" light indication signify?
• What is the appropriate action when entering the End of Runway (EOR) area?
• Which situation is a valid reason to abort a start?
• How much thrust does the engine produce?
• Under what status must aircrews coordinate for an IFR climbout from GTR?
• What will illuminate if the fuel imbalance is not reduced to less than 30 pounds within 2 minutes?
• What happens when the OIL PX (red) light stays on for pressure greater than idle?
• What does the bobweight on the control stick do?
• What should be considered during pattern ejection zones?
• An "X" on an AFTO Form 781 indicates what condition?
• What is an Exceptional Release (ER)?
• How should traffic conflicts be managed approaching Marble/Stennis during recovery?
• What temperature triggers the DUCT TEMP annunciator?
• Who is responsible for making a radio call regarding the ejection seat safety pin before takeoff?
• What must a pilot do within 24 hours after deviating from a flight rule?
• Which part of the aircraft must the first pilot check before the Exterior Inspection?
• What direction should an aircraft turn after reaching the vicinity of the VFR entry point?
• At what altitude does the prohibition on spins end?
• What should be done first if an immediate airstart is required?
• What is the recommended action when experiencing an engine failure according to T6 Standards?
• Who is responsible for closing flight plans at a non-towered civilian field?
• For how many minutes can the standby attitude indicator retain accurate pitch and roll indications after losing all electrical power?
• During an abort, what is the appropriate setting for the PCL initially?
• What signifies a steady-state spin?
• Once the speed brake is extended, what action will not retract it?
• What transient temperature range is allowed for ITT, and for how long?
• Which priority comes first in the pattern at KCBM?
• By what percentage can one overfly an overdue inspection?
• At what indicated airspeed does a spiral occur when the motion is increasing?
• A controllability check is performed after which scenario?
• What is the minimum airspeed to maintain immediately after an engine failure during takeoff?
• What should NOT be turned ON during engine malfunctions?
• What is the minimum oil temperature the system can operate, in degrees Celsius?
• What is the range of acceleration limits for asymmetric clean configuration in Gs?
• How many quarts of hydraulic fluid matter must be present to avoid a warning?
• What does the PMU default to if IOAT is greater than 96 °C but less than 121 °C?
• What types of pumps are found in each fuel tank?
• What occurs when there is an abnormal rise in ITT during a start attempt?
• Which two components primarily compose the engine's propulsion system?
• What is the maximum starter limit in seconds?
• What weight does the auto balance system aim to maintain within the wing tanks?
• What must be done before attempting to open the canopy?
• During taxiing, what should pilots confirm regarding communication?
• In order to perform contact recoveries, what type of conditions must be present?
• While flying at Low Key, what should be the distance from the runway touchdown point?
• True or False: Ditching or landing on unprepared surfaces should be done only if ejection is not an option.
• What is the maximum number of starter duty cycles allowed in a single start attempt?
• What are the symmetric gear/flaps acceleration limits in Gs?
• What is the takeoff/max temperature limit for ITT?
• At which two airports are T-6 uncontrolled operations authorized, including landings and/or touch and goes?
• What is the aim for touchdown during an ELP on the runway?
• What is a necessary step after flying solo to ensure safety?
• What is the weight of the birdstrike that the windscreen is designed to withstand?
• In the event of an unsuccessful airstart, which action should be taken next?
• What amount defines emergency fuel in pounds?
• Which VHF channel corresponds to KGTR ATIS?
• The illumination of the CHIP annunciator indicates what condition?
• What is the recommended action regarding the harness for both crew members during a controlled ejection?
• What is the maximum airspeed to fly with a damaged or unlocked canopy?
• During an Ops/Weather recall, what should the pilot do if immediate clearance is not granted?
• Which components are fed by the left P3 port?
• What is the first step in the Motoring Run Procedures?
• If you feel comfortable, is it safe to taxi with a flat tire?
• What happens to the speed brake when the flaps are extended?
• What type of flight plan is applicable for an unbriefed flight entering a working area?
• Which of the following describes a prohibited spin?
• Which type of fuel log should all other flights use besides stereo routes?
• For a precautionary emergency landing (PEL), what is the first step?
• What altitude should the aircraft reach at QUIBL during the Bengal Departure?
• When do pilots need to turn crosswind during takeoff?
• In the KGTR racetrack recovery for Runway 18, what initial heading should be taken?
• When is it necessary to cancel IFR during active runway contact recoveries?
• During an ELP approach, what is the KIAS minimum on final approach?
• What violation is associated with the potential loss of situational awareness?
• What is the recommended action if control of the aircraft is unclear between pilots?
• What should be turned OFF during the emergency ground egress procedure?
• What should a pilot do if directed to return to starting point by a flashing green light in flight?
• How many VHF frequencies can the RMU store?
• What is the minimum required tread depth for a nose gear tire to be considered acceptable on an aircraft?
• What should a pilot do if executing a go-around from a straight-in approach and a conflict exists?
• How should the aircraft's throttle be adjusted when performing a rolling takeoff?
• What is the altitude loss per turn during a near steady-state spin?
• How far above ground level must you fly over National Parks and Wildlife Refuges?
• When should the Motoring Run Procedures be performed?
• How many feet of altitude do you typically lose during an airstart attempt at the best glide speed?
• What step should be taken immediately after initiating a right side egress?
• What is the validity period for an Exceptional Release if no discrepancies arise?
• What are the two types of jet pumps present in the T-6A fuel system?
• During the winter months, how should aircrews dress?
• What is a characteristic of an erect spin?
• What phrase should be called when safety of flight is a factor, or if doubt or confusion exists?
• What is the fuel capacity per tank and in the collector tank?
• What component is powered by the hot battery bus?
• What is the voltage and amp hour capacity of the main battery?
• Aural tones are inaudible during engine start until N1 reaches what percent?
• True or False: The air data computer provides air data corrected for temperature, position, or instrument error.
• Which component manages emergency operations in the hydraulic system?
• What is the significance of the maximum speed noted in relation to braking?
• Is it true that aerobatic flight can only be performed in special use airspace?
• During the POST EJECTION procedures, which of these items must you check first?
• What is the voltage and amperage specification for the starter/generator in the T-6A's electrical system?
• What function does the engine data manager (EDM) NOT monitor?
• What is the minimum distance above clouds to complete spins?
• Under what conditions should aircrew not taxi on runways or taxiways?
• Which of the following altitudes corresponds to the Breakout (VFR entry) at KCBM?
• What is the maximum IOAT at start for the aircraft?
• What describes the location of the controlled ejection area?
• What happens to the propeller during an engine failure with the power control lever out of the cutoff position?
• What is the emergency fuel requirement in pounds?
• Which of the following maneuvers is prohibited for solo students unless required by an emergency?
• Aerobatic maneuvers involving spins or stalls are prohibited when fuel imbalance exceeds what amount?
• What type of landing should be executed during a physiological incident?
• What distinguishes a low approach from a restricted low approach?
• What happens if cockpit pressure altitude rises above 19,000 feet?
• When is the L/R FUEL LO warning triggered?
• An uncommanded power change is generally the result of which malfunctioning unit?
• Which of the following situations necessitates a manual abortion of the engine start?
• What is the maximum speed below which gear and flaps must be retracted?
• Before diverting, to whom should the pilot notify their intention?
• How many fuel probes are present in the system?
• What does the firewall shutoff handle do?
• What is the maximum number of aircraft allowed in an RSU pattern?
• When should an overdue inspection be signed off?
• What is the minimum distance in feet that must be maintained when taxiing staggered?
• At what altitude does the engine produce 100% torque on a standard day?
• Which condition indicates an increasing airspeed in a spiral?
• What is the airspace classification of KGTR, which must be considered when recovering from the west MOAS?
• In order to conduct VFR pattern operations, what is the minimum weather requirement for Pattern Solo?
• What is the first step for emergency ground egress according to the critical action table?
• What should be visible on the main gear tire for an aircraft to be unacceptable for use?
• In ground mode, the idle setting is approximately how many percent N1?
• Manned ejection procedures specify notifying which personnel after a GLOC incident?
• Which of the following is NOT a condition where a "Knock it off" call may be warranted?
• How much foot-pounds of torque does the engine produce at the prop shaft at 100% indicated torque?
• What is the status of the PMU during a prohibited spin?
• What is the amp hour capacity of the auxiliary battery?
• Are Night Vision Devices (NVD) authorized for use?
• What is the purpose of maintaining runway heading when instructed?
• Which of the following defines the term "out-of-control flight" (OCF) as outlined in the guide?
• What gesture does a pilot use to signal for crewmember attention?
• What is the minimum time for local routes to enter around scheduled time?
• What is the recommended minimum altitude before conducting a controlled ejection?
• What is the requirement for local sortie tire acceptance?
• When executing the Racetrack Recovery, what is the heading to set for a left turn?
• What is the primary design speed of the propeller during flight?
• Which systems does the hydraulic system operate?
• In which BUS TIE switch position does the generator feed both generator and battery bus items?
• What is the altitude for uncontrolled ejection decision?
• When landing with unsafe gear, if only the nose gear is down, what procedure should be considered?
• After each start or motoring attempt, how long should you wait before the second attempt?
• What is the minimum landing distance available (LDA) required in feet?
• What is the maximum icing band in feet?
• A fire warning light with no indications is considered what?
• Which aircraft is next in line to receive right of way after emergency aircraft?
• During a radio failure on the ground at KCBM, which taxiway would you return via if holding for 31L?
• What is the approximate capacity of the engine-driven hydraulic pump?
• If cords are visible on the main gear tire, what action is required?
• What are the two main sections of the engine?
• What is the function of the EDM?
• What should be monitored during an immediate airstart?
• What is the right-of-way order among different aircraft categories?
• Which handle should be pulled to shut off a fire in flight?
• At what altitude should the aircraft reach to avoid the effects of hypoxia?
• What should be done at the first indication of icing?
• What is the location of the primary pitot system?
• What is the minimum altitude at which an airstart procedure is not recommended?
• What is the oil temperature transient limit duration?
• What does a “no breakouts” instruction mean in the context of a pattern status?
• What should be checked before starting the after landing checklist?
• What is the safe procedure regarding engine malfunctions for solo students?
• What is the minimum climb angle for a successful zoom to eject?
• What term describes the action of contesting the control of the aircraft with the instructor pilot?
• What is the maximum crosswind limit for a wet runway?
• At what PSI does normal pressurization operate below 18,000 feet MSL?
• What is required for VFR STRAIGHT-IN entries to be executed?
• Which of the following is NOT a reason to abort an engine start?
• What is required to be worn on the ramp when aircraft engines are running?
• When should pilots rotate the aircraft during takeoff under normal conditions?
• Aircrews are required to don G-suits when anticipating how many Gs during any portion of a sortie?
• What is the length of the center runway at Columbus AFB?
• How does a failure of the aircraft hydraulic system affect the brake system?
• What is the maximum altitude to reach over Hw 45 when taking off from runway 13R (VFR)?
• What should pilots avoid when stowing items in the cockpit?
• What does a red CKPT PX annunciator indicate?
• What is the oil temperature range for takeoff/max?
• In the event of a physiological incident, what should the pilot declare to the controlling agency?
• What is the minimum airspeed recommended immediately after takeoff during an engine failure?
• In an Out-and-Back/Cross-Country scenario, what is the unacceptable visibility of cords on the main gear tire?
• What squawk code is used for a radio failure while airborne?
• During an engine failure in flight, what is the recommended minimum airspeed to achieve during a zoom/glide?
• The maximum knots that a pilot in command (PIC) can exceed at or below 2,500 feet AGL within how many nautical miles (NM) of the primary airport in class C or D airspace is?
• What should be the breathing cycle duration while performing exercises according to General Training Rules?
• In takeoff procedure from runway 31L (IFR), what is the initial altitude to reach?
• What does the term "Relax" refer to in stall recovery procedures?
• What is the primary rule for landing in SLOT procedures?
• What is the T6 standard for aircraft lighting during night operations while in motion?
• What should you do if you suspect a compressor stall?
• Which aircraft has the right of way when landing?
• What is the range for maximum ITT during a restart attempt?
• What action should be taken regarding the transponder during a controlled ejection?
• What should aircrews do if part of the flight will be over water and out of gliding distance to land?
• When do post-stall gyrations occur in an aircraft?
• What should you ensure regarding the PCL during an airstart?
• Who is primarily responsible for radio communication in the T6 Standard?
• When in the traffic pattern with a radio failure, what should a pilot do on final?
• What does maximum abort speed refer to?
• What is the time duration before the OIL PX (red) light activates while at idle if the pressure readout is between 15-40 psi?
• What is the recommended idle Np percentage range?
• In the event of an emergency, when should a pilot declare it?
• What is the degree limit for the elevator tab trailing edge down?
• In case of hydraulic failure, what is the risk concerning system pressure?
• At what altitude are spins permitted according to the training rules?
• What should pilots apply to prevent creep during engine run-up?
• What should be briefed in anticipation of non-local sorties in relation to lost communications?
• Is it considered a CI-Hook to continue landing if an IP or RSU calls for a go-around?
• In congested areas, the PIC must operate at what minimum altitude above the highest obstacle within a 2000' radius?
• What indicates that the emergency oxygen cylinder is sufficiently charged for flight?
• Which switch provides pitot heat for both pitot probes?
• What is the correct order of pattern priorities starting from the highest?
• What is a critical requirement when executing a spin?
• What is the quart capacity of the hydraulic system?
• What is the minimum fuel requirement below which a pilot should not operate?
• If a solo student experiences an engine failure, what action should be considered?
• What happens if the PCL is not turned off during a start in an airstart procedure?
• What is the radius of KGTR's airspace?
• In flight plans for VFR operations, who must close the flight plan?
• What is the minimum altitude to start spins according to the guidelines?
• What is the capacity in amp-hours of the aerobatic battery in the T-6A?
• What happens to available battery time if excessive radio transmissions occur with only auxiliary battery power available?
• What is necessary to revert the engine to mechanical controls during power fluctuations?
• What factors negatively impact performance regarding maximum abort speed?
• Which aircraft has the right of way when taxiing?
• What is the minimum crew rest requirement before a Flight Duty day?
• What connects the front power control lever to the fuel management unit?
• What is the minimum speed for exercises as per General Training Rules?
• Which memory jogger is used to confirm fire indications in-flight?
• What is the weather requirement for DUAL pattern status operations?
• What is the minimum altitude for restricted overhead entries into the pattern?
• What does "Land As Soon As Possible" imply in an emergency situation?
• When should the pilot maintain radio silence during emergency procedures?
• What must aircrew advise Ground Control of when calling for taxi?
• How many NAV frequencies can the RMU store?
• What is a key indicator of an uncommanded propeller feather?
• What happens if hydraulic pressure drops below 1800 psi?
• What do the color bands on the filler plug indicate regarding fluid level?
• What is the minimum battery voltage required for operation, in volts?
• What causes an uncommanded propeller feather?
• How long will the backup flight instrument and UHF tuning be powered by the auxiliary battery?
• At what battery voltage should external power not be connected?
• When landing with a failed tire, which side of the runway should you land on to maintain directional control?
• What is the purpose of the fuel pickup valve during inverted flight?
• What is the minimum speed at which pilots may request a closed pattern?
• What should be done with the parking brake before advancing the PCL at the EOR?
• What are the conditions under which simulated emergency procedures may be conducted?
• What is the preliminary action for low fuel pressure?
• What is necessary before any aircraft movement or engine start?